[Advaita-l] Why was the illusory universe generated at the first place?

Aurobind Padiyath aurobind.padiyath at gmail.com
Wed Mar 23 01:42:41 CDT 2016


Your statement
"It (darkness) can be experienced hence it is sat and at the same time
these particular experiences can be nullified (in the presence of light),
therefore, it is asat.

Brahman is cit (consciousness) Maya is Avidya or (Avastu).
Object(appearance) is very different from the subject but there is no
object without the subject (This assumption is wrong as in a mirage). But
where did this object (the water in a mirage or darkness in the absence of
light) came from? "

Aurobind

On Wed, 23 Mar 2016 12:03 Shashwata Shastri, <shashwata.unimas at gmail.com>
wrote:

> Where did this Vastu came from? If it is Vastu what is it doing inside of
> Brahman? Surely it is not an independent entity?! Questions related to Maya
> always puzzles me. I know without Brahman it is non existent. Maya is
> mithya and mithya is by default sat and asat. It can be experienced hence
> it is sat and at the same time these particular experiences can be
> nullified, therefore, it is asat.
>
> Brahman is cit (consciousness) Maya is Avidya or vastu. Object is very
> different from the subject but there is no object without the subject. But
> where did this object came from?
>
> Shashwata Chowdhury
>
> On Wed, Mar 23, 2016 at 1:53 AM, Aurobind Padiyath <
> aurobind.padiyath at gmail.com> wrote:
>
>> Pranams
>> The first error that needs correction is that Maya is a vastu. The rest
>> of the questions will be nonexistent if you understand this.
>> It is compared to darkness to light as an example.
>> Now look at your questions in this scenario. You will get all answers.
>>
>> Aurobind
>> On 23 Mar 2016 03:48, "Shashwata Shastri via Advaita-l" <
>> advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org> wrote:
>>
>>> What is this Maya? Where does it come from? Why was Avidya there at the
>>> first place? Brahman is the one and absolute. My question is, why this
>>> spark of imperfection in the perfect? Without Brahman there can be no
>>> existence of Maya itself. But what is the relation between Maya and
>>> Brahman? It is not like the Brahman, it is not even same as Brahman, it
>>> can not exist without Brahman, it is not something which can be
>>> identified
>>> as the opposite of Brahman either. But we need to admit that it did
>>> generate from Brahman. If it is from Brahman then why it was there on the
>>> first place (Again same question)? Why depended existence of ignorance in
>>> absolute and pure Brahman?
>>>
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> --

Aurobind Padiyath
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