[Advaita-l] On rationality; was "Vedas are not apauresheya according to the Vedas ?"

[Bhaskar YR]

sAshtAnga praNAms Sri Vidya prabhuji
Hare Krishna

In fact, strictly speaking, pUrva mImAMsaka-s reject the need for any 
ISvara at all. 

> then how the statements like asya mahatO bhUtasya niHshvasitametat 
yadrugvedO yajurvedaH sAmavedOtharvAgirasaH etc. in bruhadAraNyaka would 
be interpreted by pUrvamImAmsaka-s??
 
A similar process of criticism and rejection can be applied to 
apaurusheyatva also, *IF*
this were to be established using anumAna. For any great logician on 
earth, remember
there will be an even greater logician who will find holes in his 
arguments and reject
them, for one reason or the other. 

>  then which pramANa would be used by pUrva mImAmsaka-s to prove 
apaurusheyatva of veda-s?? is it Agama pramANa itself or anupalabdhi 
pramANa prabhuji??  What exactly is the difference between pUrva & uttara 
mImAmsaka-s with regard to pramANa they used to establish apaurusheyatva 
of veda, pls. clarify. 

Your Humble servant
Hari Hari Hari Bol!!!
bhaskar