[Advaita-l] On rationality; was "Vedas are not apauresheya according to the Vedas ?"

[Bhaskar YR]

praNAms Sri Rajaram prabhuji
Hare Krishna

How do the authors of pauresheya texts know? You can say they have special 
powers but how do you or they know that they have special powers. You need 
apauresheya text to say. Apauresheya texts are true because of sabdArtha 
nityatvA. 

>  I think the prefix aparusheya is unnecessary here.  For example to know 
the lakshaNa of sthitha prajnA dont we refer the verses of  geeta??  To 
evaluate paramahamasa's bhakti toward mAta, does not bhairavi brAhmaNi 
used the bhAgavata?? 

>  BTW, what exactly does this shabdArtha nityatva means??  And how does 
this help to prove the apaurusheyatva of shruti-s??  Does nityatva of 
shabdArtha-s restricted ONLY to the shabda-s in shruti ??  Please clarify. 
 

Even you can't say Ishwara told me. How do you know someone is Ishwara? 
You need apaureshya text to know Ishwara. Pauresheya is valid as a 
secondary sabda pramana only. 

>  when the well known upanishads themselves under the deliberation for 
its origin & source, what is the yard stick that we can use to ascertain 
whether a particular text is paurusheya or apaurusheya?? For example 
mAndUkya (Agama prakaraNa), dvaitins have a different take on this part 
likewise we, the advaitins have our own reservations on mahAshruti & other 
alien texts, which have been extensively quoted by Anandateertha in his 
works :-))  Perhaps, Ishwara himself cannot be able to convince both 
(dvaitins & advaitins) of us when it comes to these controversial 
issues:-))

Hari Hari Hari Bol!!!
bhaskar