[Advaita-l] Vikalpa, Savikalpa, and Nirvikalpa

[Bhaskar YR]

praNAms
Hare krishna

Though I am interested in discussion on topics like nirvikalpa samAdhi, 
mUlAvidyA or bhAvarUpa avidyA etc. due to severe time constraints at 
office, I am not able to  participate as actively as I wanted to.  Anyway, 
here is my thoughts on the interesting observation of Sri lalitalAlita 
prabhuji :

Quoted bR^ihadAraNyaka-bhAShyam is opposed to the view that upAsanA or
samAdhi can do anything more that vAkya.

>  Yes, moreover, upAsana. dhyAna and samAdhi are purushatantra (kartum, 
akartum anyatAkartum shakyaM) whereas vAkya janita jnAna is vastu tantra, 
there is no choice left here but to dispel our ignorance and let the 
svarUpa shine on its own. 


Let us check this view :
*sAdhaka gains aparoxa-GYAna in samAdhi.*

>  shankara clearly says, aparOksha jnAna or paramArtha jnAna is NOT any 
mysterious jnAna that can be achieved in an inert mind state.  jnAna can 
only bring  the bAdha to the reality of vyavahAra it is not anyway, 
vyavahArAteeta or avasthAteeta aloukika or ateendriya supernatural jnAna. 


So, the GYAna generated by mahAvAkya is not aparoxa. Why ? Is there
difference in their shape ?

>  If vAkya janita jnAna through shravaNAdi sAdhana is NOT aparOxa and if 
the shAstra vAkya janita jnAna requires another step like samAdhi anubhava 
then shAstra cannot be the antya pramANa for the brahma jignAsa and jnAna 
??  Anyway, there are some scholars are of the opinion that shAstra is 
just like operation and instruction manual and bOdhita jnAna has to be 
experienced practically in some other state like in nirvikalpa samAdhi. 


*akhaNDAkAra-vR^itti which is present in samAdhi .*.

>  how can an akhanda have the 'AkAra' to say we have akhandAkAra vrutti?? 
 I am not able to understand this term..anyway, my knowledge in Sanskrit 
is mediocre.

What is this akhaNDAkAra-vR^itti which is present in samAdhi ?
Do you mean that uninterrupted AtmAkAravR^itti is akhaNDAkAra-vR^itti ?
If yes, as there is no change in shape of AtmAkAra-vR^itti in samAdhi and
vyutthAna, so what causes difference of cognition ?

>  and one more question that arises from this is, if in nirvikalpa 
samAdhi there is absolutely no duality whatsoever, what would be the cause 
for the  vyutthAna from this secondless state??  the answer to this 
question is aptly applicable to vyutthAna from sushupti as well, since 
shankara says in both sushupti and samAdhi there exists avidyA :-))

Will you like to say that un-interrupted-ness is the cause of directness 
of
experience. That is not observed anywhere. Pot doesn't need concentration
to become aparoxa.

Do you want to say that shabda can't generate aparoxa-GYAna ?
That is also untenable. Remember dashamastvamasi.

>  your tenth man realization brings the upadesha sAhasri poem to my mind 
: dashamastvamaseetyevaM tattvamasyAdi vAkyataH...

Hari Hari Hari Bol!!!
bhaskar