[Advaita-l] [advaitin] Veda-s & its apaurusheyatva

[Mahesh Ursekar]

Pranams Ram Madhavan!

I hope you have found the answers to your questions by the multitudinous replies. So, here is one more:

(1) That the Vedas unauthored is matter of faith. It is impossible to accept them as such without this. Unless you are self-realized.
(2) That they use names specific to a region is not surprising. It is impossible to convey knowledge without this. Rather, with this line of reasoning, you might even have asked why they talked of the sun, moon, sky, earth or such objects understood only by humans? Why do they even talk of hands & mouths at all? Is this a presumption that there have to be human-like creatures in the entire universe? Or other universes - something the Vedas also allude to? Not necessarily. Nor does this  seem to discount non-authorship. Only that they are so because humans could understand them so. It is our limitation as humans, not that of the Vedas.
(3) Why should the names be "Indian" only? If mythology is to be believed, in the Sat Yuga, there were only people with such names. There was no India (in fact, I was most surprised when you mentioned bharat-varsha. Please educate me if this word is used in the Vedas!). It is only in this Yuga the Vedas could be revealed to the rishis. The Johns & the Peters are a devolutionary product. :-)
(4) That they are eternal is explained by Vedantic belief that all Yugas stretch endlessly in the past and as to the future. There never was a time in which there was no Yuga & never will there be one in the future. As also, the eternal creator Iswara & Veda are one (as explained in a link provided by Shyam: http://www.adi-shankara.org/search?q=apaurusheya). 

Thanks for this simple question with many complex answers! Unfortunately, most simple questions are of that nature. :-)

Best wishes, Mahesh

 

--- On Tue, 1/9/09, Bhaskar YR <bhaskar.yr at in.abb.com> wrote:

From: Bhaskar YR <bhaskar.yr at in.abb.com>
Subject: [advaitin] Veda-s & its apaurusheyatva
To: "A discussion group for Advaita Vedanta" <advaita-l at lists.advaita-vedanta.org>, advaitin at yahoogroups.com
Cc: "Ram Madhavan" <m_ansram at yahoo.com>
Date: Tuesday, 1 September, 2009, 4:44 PM






 




    
                  praNAms

Hare Krishna



One of my cybernet friends, expressed his observation on vedas' 

aparusheyatva.  I'd like to get the clarification on this from the learned 

prabhuji-s of this forum.  Here is his observation : 



// quote //

What puzzled me was that the veda also had intimate knowledge of the 

names,culture, topography etc of a very small place in the universe called 

bhArata-varsha. This was proof to me that veda was "authored" by Indians! 

Had it been unauthored and eternal, it will likely not show affinity 

towards India will it? Why do you think veda has no names like John and 

Peter? Why do you think it makes no reference to places such as Europe and 

Africa? Why do you think it talks of ganga and sarasvati and not of Nile 

or Amazon which are even bigger rivers? The proper nouns in the veda are 

specific to our culture and it is the proof that it is not eternal and 

unauthored. Veda as knowledge is eternal but as a text it appears to be a 

divinely inspired content in accordance with place and time in which it 

was revealed. If veda were to be revealed in another galaxy in another 

planet how will they make sense of the names

in it? Obviously, if the veda is revealed there, its spiritual content 

will be the same, but not the textual content.

// unquote //

Hari Hari Hari Bol!!!

bhaskar

PS : I've taken his concurrence to cross post his mail to other forum & 

I've marked a copy of this mail to him also. 



[Non-text portions of this message have been removed]




 

      

    
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